FMGE Q & A(Part 3)

PSM, medicine, pediatrics, derma

PSM

Q 110. Iron and folic acid supplementation forms:

A. Health promotion
B. Specific protection
C. Primordial prevention
D. Primary prevention
Ans. B

Q 111. The most important function of sentinel surveillance is:

A. To find the total amount of disease in a population
B. To plan effective control measures
C. To determine the trend of disease in a population
D. To notify disease
Ans. A

Q 112. Serial interval is:

A. Time gap between primary and secondary case
B. Time gap between index and primary case
C. Time taken for a person from infection to develop maximum infectivity
D. The time taken from infection till a person infects another person
Ans. A

Q 113. All the following are advantages of case control studies except:

A. Useful in rare disease
B. Relative risk can be calculated
C. Odds ratio can be calculated
D. Cost effective and inexpensive

Q 114. The association between coronary artery disease and smoking was found to be as follows:

CAD No CAD
Smokers 30 20
Non smokers 20 30
The Odds ratio can be estimated as:

A. 0.65
B. 0.85
C. 1.35
D. 2.25
Ans. D

Q 115. In a prospective study comprising 10,000 subjects, 6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 were not, 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2 out of the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What is the interpretation of the above results?

A. Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer
B. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to each other
C. The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions
D. Beta carotene is carcinogenic
Ans. B

Q 116. About direct standardization all are true except:

A. Age specific death rates are not needed
B. A standard population is needed
C. Population should be comparable
D. Two propulations are compared
Ans. A

Q 117. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A. Rubella
B. Diphtheria
C. Tetanus
D. Hepatitis B
Ans. A

Q 118. Which of the following statements is true regarding pertussis?

A. Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000
B. Vaccine efficacy is more than 95%
C. Erythromycin is useful for prophylaxis
D. The degree of polymorphonuclear leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough
Ans. C

Q 119. Drugs A & B are both used for treating a particular SKIN infection. After one standard application, drug A eradicates the infection in 95% of both adults and children. drug B eradicates the infection in 47% of adults & 90% of children. There are otherwise no significant pharmacological differences between the two drugs, and there are no significant side effects. However, the cost of drug A is twice that of drug B. Dr. Sunil, a general practitioner, always uses drug B for the first treatment, and resorts to drug A if the infection persists. Dr. Sudhir, another general practitioner, always uses drug A for adults and drug B for children. Ignoring indirect costs, which of the following statement is incorrect:

A. Drug A is more effective than B for treating children
B. Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating children
C. Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating adults
D. Dr. Sudhir’s regime achieves a higher level of cost-effectiveness than Dr. Sunil’s
Ans. B

Q 120. The infectivity of chicken pox lasts for:

A. Till the last scab falls off
B. 6 days after onset of rash
C. 3 days after onset of rash
D. Till the fever subsides
Ans. B

Q 121. Carriers are important in all the following except:

A. Polio
B. Typhoid
C. Measles
D. Diphtheria
Ans. C

Q 122. Acute flaccid paralysis is reported in a child aged:

A. 0-3 years
B. 0-5 years
C. 0-15 years
D. 0-25 years
Ans. C

Q 123. A 2-years-old boy, presented with cough, fever & difficulty in breathing. His RR 50/min. There was no chest indrawing. Auscultation of chest reveals bilateral crepitions. The most probable diagnosis is:

A. Very severe pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia
C. Pneumonia
D. No pneumonia
Ans. C

Q 124. Active and passive immunity should be given together in all except:

A. Tetanus
B. Rabies
C. Measles
D. Hepatitis B
Ans. C

Q 125. Cereals and proteins are considered complemen-tary because:

A. Cereals are deficient in methionine
B. Cereals are deficient in methionine and pulse are deficient in lysine
C. Cereals are deficient in lysine and pulses are deficient in methionine
D. Cereal proteins contain non-essential amino-acids, while pulse proteins contain essential amino acids
Ans. C

Q 126. For a 60 kg Indian male, the minimum daily protein requirement has been calculated to be 40 g (mean) & standard deviation is 10. The recommended daily allowance of protein would be:

A. 60 g/day
B. 70 g/day
C. 40 g/day
D. 50 g/day
Ans. A

Q 127. A population study showed a mean glucose of 86 mg/ dL. In a sample of 100 showing normal curve distribution, what percentage of people have glocose above 86%?

A. 65 B. 50
C. 75 D. 60
Ans. B

Q 128. The best method to show the association between height and weight of children in a class is by:

A. Bar chart
B. Line diagram
C. Scatter diagram
D. Histogram
Ans. C

Q 129. The correlation between variables A and B in a study was found to be 1.1. This indicates:

A. Very strong correlation
B. Moderately strong correlation
C. Weak correlation
D. Computational mistake in calculating correlation
Ans. D

Q 130. The biological oxygen demand indicates:

A. Organic matter
B. Bacterial content
C. Anaerobic bacteria
D. Chemicals
Ans. A

Q 131. In a surveillance centre for hepatitis B, in a low prevalance area, the method for testing for hepatitis B was single ELISA. This policy was changed to double testing in series. This would result in the following 2 parameters of the test being affected:

A. Increased specificity and positive predictive value
B. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value
C. Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
D. Increased specificity and negative predictive value
Ans. A

Q 132. In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving a drug. The test of significance would be:

A. Unpaired t test
B. Paired t test
C. Chi square test
D. Fisher test
Ans. B

Q 133. Ravi and Ashok stay in the same hostel of the same university. Ravi develops infection with group B meningococcus. After a few days Ashok develops infection due to group C meningococcus. All the following are true statements except:

A. Educate students about meningococcal trans-mission and take preventive measures
B. Chemotheraphylaxis to all against both group B and group C
C. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Ravi
D. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Ashok
Ans. C

Q 134. All of the following are common cause of post neonatal infant mortality in India, except:

A. Tetanus
B. Malnutrition
C. Diarrhoeal diseases
D. Acute respiratory infection
Ans. A

Q 135. True about ‘total fertility rate’ is:

A. Sensitive indicator of family planning achievement
B. Completed family size
C. Number of live births per 1000 married women in reproductive age group
D. Average number of girls born to a woman
Ans. B

Q 136. ‘Silent epidemic’ of the century is:

A. Coronary artery disease
B. Chronic liver disease
C. Chronic obstructive lung disease
D. Alzheimer’s disease
Ans. D

Medicine

Q 137. The following condition is not associated with an increased anion-gap type of metabolic acidosis:

A. Shock
B. Ingestion of ante-freeze
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. COPD
Ans. D

Q 138. Acute metabolic acidosis:

A. Has biphasic effect on K+ excretion
B. Does not effect K+ excretion significantly
C. Decreases urinary K+ excretion
D. Increases urinary K+ excretion
Ans. C

Q 139. Urinary anion gap an indication of excretion of:

A. Ketoacids
B. Na
C. H+ ion
D. K+ ion
Ans. B

Q 140. The most common mode of inheritance of congenital heart disease is:

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. SEX linked dominant
D. Multifactorial
Ans. D

Q 141. Which one of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder:

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. G-6-PD deficiency
Ans. B

Q 142. Which type diabetes is HLA associated:

A. Type I diabetes
B. Tyep II diabetes
C. Malnutrition related type disease
D. Pregnancy related type diabetes
Ans. A

Q 143. All of the following are sexually transmitted, except:

A. Candida albicans
B. Echionococcus
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. Group B streptococcus
Ans. B

Q 144. All of the following infections may be transmitted via blood transfusion, except:

A. Parvo B19
B. Dengue virus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Hepatitis G virus
Ans. B Q 145. Hypoglycemia is a recognized feature of all of the following conditions except:

A. Uremia
B. Acromegaly
C. Addison’s disease
D. Hepatocellular failure
Ans. B

Q 146. All of the following feature may be seen in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, except:

A. Fever
B. HEMOLYSIS
C. Hypertension
D. Low platelet count
Ans. C

Q 147. The following laboratory determinants is abnormally prolonged in ITP:

A. APTT
B. Prothrombin time
C. Bleeding time
D. Clotting time
Ans. C

Q 148. PNH is associated with all of the following condition except:

A. Aplastic anemia
B. Increased LAP scores
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Iron deficiency anemia
Ans. B

Q 149. A 20 years adult presents with severe hypoplastic anemia. What is most effective treatment:

A. Interferona
B. IL-2
C. ATG therapy
D. Bone marrow transplant
Ans. D

Q 150. Which of the following is not commonly seen in polycythemia vera?

A. Thrombosis
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Prone for acute leukemia
D. Spontaneous severe infection
Ans. D

Q 151. The following condition is not associated with an anti-phopholipid syndrome:

A. Venous thrombosis
B. Recurrent foetal loss
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Neurological manifestations
Ans. C

Q 152. Hypergastrinemia with hypochlorhydria is seen in:

A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B. VIPoma
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Glucagonoma
Ans. C

Q 153. All of the following phases of the jugular venous pulse and their causes are correctly matched, except:

A. ‘c’wave – onset of atrial systole
B. ‘a-x’ descent – atrial relaxation
C. ‘v-y’ descent – emptying of blood from right atrium into right ventricle
D. ‘y-a’ ascent – filling of the right atrium from the vena cava
Ans. A

Q 154. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding findings in JVP:

A. Cannon wave: Complete heart block
B. Slow vy descent: Tricuspid regurgitation
C. Giant c wave: Tricuspid stenosis
D. Increased JVP with prominent pulsations:SVC obstruction
Ans. A

Q 155. While inseting a central venous catheter, a patient develops respiratory distress. The most likely cause is:

A. Hemothorax
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pleural effusion
D. Hypovolemia
Ans. B

Q 156. All of the following are clinical features of myxoma, except:

A. Fever
B. Clubbing
C. Hypertension
D. Embolic phenomenon
Ans. C

Q 157. Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with:

A. Diabetic nephropathy
B. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Minimal change disease
D. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Ans. B

Q 158. Characteristic of Henoch-Schonlein purpura is:

A. Blood in stool
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Susceptibility to infection
Ans. A

Q 159. Renal osteodystropy differs from nutritional and genetic forms of osesteomalacia in having:

A. Hypocalcaemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophostaemia
D. Hyerphosphatema
Ans. D

Q 160. Medullary cystic disease of the kidney is best diagnosed by:

A. Ultrasound
B. Nuclear scan
C. Urography
D. Biopsy
Ans. D

Q 161. A patient with nephrotic syndrome on long-standing corticosteroid therapy may develop all the following except:

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypertophy of muscle
C. Neuropsychiatric symptoms
D. Suppression of the pituitary adrenal axis
Ans. B

Q 162. A 40 years old man presented with repeated episodes of bronchospasm and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray revealed perihilar bronchiectasis. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Idiopathic pulmonary fiborsis
C. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D. Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Ans. D


Q 163. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?

A. Coal dust
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Thermophilic actenomycetes
D. Tobacco smoke
Ans. D

Q 164. A 35 years old man was found +ve for HBsAg and HBeAg, accidentally during screening of blood donation. On laboratory examination SGOT and SGPT are normal. What should you do next:

A. liver biopsy
B. Interferon therapy
C. Observation
D. HBV-DNA estimation
Ans. D

Q 165. A 25 years women presents with bloody diarrhea and is diagnosed as a case of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following condition is not associated:

A. Sclerosing cholengitis
B. Iritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Pancreatitis
Ans. D

Q 166. Investigation of choice for invasive amebiasis is:

A. Indirect heamagglutination
B. ELISA
C. Counter immune electrophoresis
D. Microscopy
Ans. B

Q 167. A diabetic patient with BLOOD GLUCOSE of 600 mg/dL and Na 122 mEq/L was treated with insulin. After giving insulin the BLOOD GLUCOSE decreased to 100 mg/dL.What changes in blood Na level is expected?

A. Increase in Na+ level
B. Decrease in Na+ level
C. No change would be expected
D. Na+ would return to previous level spontaneously on correction of BLOOD GLUCOSE
Ans. A

Q 168. A 20 years young man presents with exertional dyspnoea, headache, and giddiness. On examination, there is hypertension and L VR. X-ray picture shows notching of the anterior ends of the ribs. The most like diagnosis is:

A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Carcinoid syndrome
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Superior mediastinal syndrome
Ans. C

Q 169. Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is important because:

A. RA factor is associated with bad prognosis
B. Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis
C. It is very common in childhood-rheumatoid arthritis
D. It correlates with disease activity
Ans. A

Q 170. Conn’s syndrome is associated with all except:

A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Oedema
Ans. D

Q 171. The triad originally described by Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by:

A. Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, non beta cell tumour
B. Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, beta cell tumour
C. Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, non beta cell tumour
D. Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, beta cell tumour
Ans. A

Q 172. All of the following are features of pheochromocytoma except:

A. Hypertensive paraoxysm
B. Headache
C. Orhtostatic hypotension
D. Wheezing
Ans. D

Q 173. The treatment of choice in young patient suffering from aplastic anaemia is:

A. Danazol
B. G-CSF
C. Bone marrow transplantation
D. ATG
Ans. C

Q 174. Raised anion gap in blood is not seen in which of the following?

A. Renal failure
B. Antifreeze ingestion
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Chronic respiratory failure
Ans. D

PEDIATRICS

Q 175. A Down syndrome girl has 21/21 translocation and her father is carrier of balanced translocation. Risk of Down syndrome in next pregnancy is:

A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 50%
D. 25%
Ans. A

Q 176. The following signs would warrant further evaluation of developmental status in a healthy 12 weeks old infant:

A. Dose not vocalize
B. Dose not babble
C. Dose not raise head up to 90°
D. Dose not transfer a bright red ring from one hand to the other, even when the ring is directly placed in the hand of child
Ans. A

Q 177. A 2 years child weighing 6.7 kg presents in the casualty with history of vomiting & diarrhoea for last 2 days. On examination SKIN pinch over the anterior abdominal wall go quickly to its original position. Interpretation of SKIN pinch test in this child will be:

A. No dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. SKIN pinch can not be evaluated in this child
Ans. D

Q 178. An infant presents with history of seizures & SKIN rashes. Investigations show metabolic acidosis and increased blood ketone levels. This child is likely to be suffering from:

A. Propionic aciduria
B. Urea cycle disorder
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Ans. D

Q 179. With reference to RDS, all of the following statements are true, except:

A. Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation
B. Is more common in babies born to diabetic mothers
C. Leads to cyanosis
D. Is treated by administering 100% oxygen
Ans. D

Q 180. Which of the following is not a common manifestation of congenital rubella:

A. Deafness
B. PDA
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Mental retardation
Ans. C

Q 181. An 8 years old boy presented with fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy with prior history of sore throat. There was no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows > 20% lymphoplasmacytoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Influenza
B. Tuberculosis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Ans. C

Q 182. The most common genetic cause of liver disease in children is:

A. Haemochromatosis
B. Antitrypsin deficiency1aB.
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Glycogen storage disease
Ans. B

Q 183. Which of the following childhood tumors most frequently metastasizes to the bone:

A. Neuroblastoma
B. Ganglioneuroma
C. Wilms’ tumor
D. Ewing’s sarcoma
Ans. A

Q 184. A six months old girl is having recurrent UTI. Ultrasound abdomen shows bilateral hydronephrosis. MCU (micturating cystourethrogram) shows bilateral grade IV vesicoureteral reflux. The treatment of choice is:

A. Endoscopic injection of polyteflon at the ureteric orifices
B. Ureteric reimplantation
C. Bilateral ureterostomy
D. Prophylactic antibiotics
Ans. B

Q 185. The most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in a newborn is:

A. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
-hydroxylase deficiencybB. 11
C. -hydroxyalse deficiencya17
-hydroxysteroid deficiencybD. 3
Ans. A

Dermatology

Q 186. Multiple erythematous annular lesions with peripheral collarette of scales arranged predominantly over trunk are seen in:

A. Pityriasis versicolor
B. Pityriasis rubra
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. Pityriasis lichennoides
Ans. C

Q 187. All of the following are given for the treatment of pityriasis versicolor, except:

A. Ketoconazole
B. Griesofiilvin
C. Clotrimazole
D. Selenium sulphide
Ans. B

Q 188. A patient with PSORIASIS was started on systemic steroids. After stopping treatment, the patient developed generalized pustules all over the body. The cause is most likely to be:

A. Drug induced reaction
B. Pustular PSORIASIS
C. Bacterial infections
D. Septicemia
Ans. B

Q 189. Wickham’s striae are seen in:

A. Lichen niditus
B. Lichenoid eruption
C. Lichen striates
D. Lichen planus
Ans. D

Q 190. Griseofulvin is given for the treatment of fungal infection in finger nail dermatophytosis for:

A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 3 months
Ans. D

Q 191. After 3 days of fever patient developed maculoerythematous rash that lasted for 48 hours. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Fifth disease
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. Roseola infantum
Ans. D

Q 192. Exfoliative dermatitis can be due to all the following diseases, except:

A. Drug hypersensitivity
B. Pityriasis rubra
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. PSORIASIS
Ans. C

Q 193. Genital elephantiasis is caused by:

A. Donovanosis
B. Congenital syphilis
C. Herpes genitalis
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
Ans. D